Microbiology
Chapter 16
Question
1
Allergy
is an exaggerated immune response that is manifested by what reaction?
A) Immunopathology
B) Hypersensitivity
C) Inflammation
D) Fever
E) Autoimmunity
Question
2
Which
of the categories of hypersensitivities involves a T-cell response?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Types I-IV
Question
3
Which
category of hypersensitivities is IgE-mediated?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Types II and III
Question
4
What
type of allergens are the most allergenic?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Nucleic acids
D) Fats
E) Haptens
Question
5
What
sets the stage for the reactions that occur upon repeated exposure to the same
allergen in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) The release of the allergenic particles into the tissue fluids
and lymphatics
B) Recognition of the allergen by B and T
cells
C) Proliferation and differentiation of B
cells into plasma cells
D) Secretion of IgE by plasma cells
E) Binding of IgE to mast cells and
basophils
Question
6
Mast
cells have important roles in the development of allergies. This is due to all
but which of the following reasons.
A) Their tendency to degranulate
B) Their cytoplasmic granules that contain physiologically active
chemicals
C) Their ubiquitous location in tissues
D) Their ability to produce IgE
E) Their capacity to bind IgE during
sensitization
Question
7
What
is the most abundant and fastest acting cytokine released by mast cells?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Bradykinin
D) Leukotriene
E) Platelet-activating factor
Question
8
What
differs between atopy and anaphylaxis?
A) The allergen that triggers the response
B) The site of the reaction
C) The concentrations of the chemical
mediators released
D) The organ systems targeted by the
chemical mediators
E) The types of chemical mediators released
Question
9
What
is injected into patients undergoing allergic desensitization?
A) IgG antibodies
B) IgE antibodies
C) Monoclonal antibodies against IgE
D) Corticosteroids
E) Pure allergen to which the patient is
allergic
Question
10
A
person with type A blood has what type of ABO antibodies in their plasma?
A) Anti-O
B) Anti-A
C) Anti-B
D) Anti-A and Anti-B
E) Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B
Question
11
Why
are people with type O blood known as universal donors?
A) Because antibodies against A and B antigens are not present in
their plasma
B) Because their plasma contains antibodies against both A and B
antigens
C) Because A and B antigens are present on
their red blood cells
D) Because neither A nor B antigens are present on their red blood
cells
E) Because type O blood is the most common blood type in the
United States
Question
12
The
maternal antibodies that cross the placenta and lead to the development of
erythroblastosis fetalis are of what class?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgG
E) IgE
Question
13
In
what manner does a type III hypersensitivity reaction differ from a type II
hypersensitivity reaction?
A) The antigens involved in a type III reaction are not bound to a
cell's surface, while those involved in a type II reaction are bound to the
surface
B) Type III is an immediate hypersensitivity, while type II is a
delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C) Type III hypersensitivities involve IgE, while type II hypersensitivities
involve IgG and IgM
D) Type III hypersensitivities are T-cell mediated, while type II
hypersensitivities are B-cell mediated
E) Type III hypersensitivities involve complement, while type II
hypersensitivities do not
Question
14
All
but which of the following statements characterizes an Arthus reaction?
A) It is a systemic reaction
B) It depends on the formation of IgG, IgM,
or IgA antibodies
C) The onset of symptoms is delayed
D) Large doses of antigen are required for
its initiation
E) It is a localized dermal reaction
Question
15
The
lack of which immunoglobulin class is the most prevalent, occurring in about
one person in 600?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgE
Question
16
Which
of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A) SLE
B) Type I diabetes
C) Serum sickness
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
E) Multiple sclerosis
Question
17
A
positive tuberculin skin test is an example of what type of hypersensitivity
reaction?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Types II and III
Question
18
What
cells initially recognize grafted foreign tissue and begin the process of
rejection?
A) Helper T cells
B) B cells
C) Macrophages
D) Stem cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells
Question
19
When a
person consents to be an organ donor upon his/her death, what is the most
likely procedure that will be performed with the donated organs?
A) Xenograft
B) Allograft
C) Isograft
D) Autograft
E) Malograft
Question
20
Which
of the listed immunodeficiencies is typically more devastating?
A) Phagocytic defects
B) Complement defects
C) Granulocyte defects
D) B cell defects
E) T cell defects
Question
21
Although
not yet a reality, scientists hope to use what procedure to treat both X-linked
and ADA types of SCID?
A) Passive immunotherapy
B) Gene therapy
C) Desensitization
D) Bone marrow transplant
E) Chemotherapy
Question
22
Which
is incorrect about human ABO antigens?
A) Three alleles are involved in this
system.
B) Only red blood cells carry the A and B
antigen.
C) Type O blood is the most common among
all groups in the U.S.
D) The red blood cells of type O persons have antigens, but not A
and B antigens.
E) A person with type A blood has the
genotype AA or AO.
Question
23
Which
theory on the origin of autoimmune diseases explains psoriasis?
A) Clonal Selection Theory
B) Theory of Immune Deficiency
C) Molecular Mimicry
D) Sequestered Antigen Theory
E) Theory of Viral Infection
Question
24
Alergy
injections to promote desensitization to a specific allergan may be beneficial
against all of the following except:
A) Dust mites
B) Foods
C) Venoms
D) Plants
E) Molds
Question
25
The
primary types of cells that operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor
cells are cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and what other cell type?
A) Macrophages
B) Dendritic cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
E) Monocytes