Microbiology

Chapter 17

Question 1

Which method is a useful indicator of evolutionary relatedness among bacterial species?

A) Direct fluorescence antigen test

B) Gram stain

C) Antimicrobial sensitivity tests

D) Ribosomal RNA sequence analysis

E) Complement fixation

Question 2

Which of the following is not an immune test?

A) Complement fixation

B) Phage typing

C) Agglutination tests

D) Precipitation tests

E) Double-diffusion (Ouchterlony) tests

Question 3

Latex agglutination tests are available for all of the following except:

A) Weil-Felix reaction for rickettsial infections

B) Assaying pregnancy hormone in the urine

C) Identifying Candida yeasts

D) Diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis

E) Diagnosing streptococcal infections

Question 4

In a toxin neutrialization test, a test serum is incubated with the microbe that produces the toxin. Which of the following outcomes indicates a positive result?

A) The serum provides nutrients and the microbe begins to grow.

B) The microbe lyses.

C) The serum inhibits the growth of the microbe.

D) The serum causes the microbes to agglutinate.

E) The serum causes the microbes to fluoresce.

Question 5

Which of the following is not an immunological test?

A) Hydrolysis of gelatin

B) Catalase test

C) Fermentation of sucrose

D) Oxidase test

E) Agglutination test

Question 6

Which test is chiefly used for tracing strains of bacteria in epidemics?

A) Phage typing

B) Complement fixation

C) Ouchterlony test

D) G+C composition

E) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

Question 7

Which technique is most applicable for clarifying the taxonomic position of a bacterium, but too nonspecific to be a precise identification too?

A) G+C Base Composition

B) Polymerase Chain Reaction

C) Radioimmunoassay

D) Indirect ELISA

E) Widal test

Question 8

The Widal test is a tube agglutination test for diagnosing which organism?

A) Candida

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Salmonelloses

D) HIV

E) Group A streptococci

Question 9

Which test is employed to measure the levels of insulin and other hormones and to diagnose allergies?

A) Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test

B) Radioimmunosorbant test (RIST)

C) Toxin neutralization test

D) Western Blot

E) Direct ELISA

Question 10

Which test is an important verification procedure for scarlet fever and rheumatic fever?

A) Direct ELISA

B) Western Blot

C) Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test

D) Toxin neutralization test

E) Radioimmunosorbant test (RIST)

Question 11

An antibody that requires complement to complete the lysis of its antigenic target cell is termed a:

A) Precipitin

B) Agglutinin

C) Titer

D) Lysin

E) Epitope

Question 12

The presence and concentration of antibodies against a known antigen can be detected in all but which of the following clinical samples?

A) Feces

B) Serum

C) Urine

D) Saliva

E) Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 13

What term is defined as the ability of a test to detect small concentrations of an antigen or antibody?

A) Serology

B) Agglutination

C) Specificity

D) Titer

E) Sensitivity

Question 14

What type of immunologic reaction occurs when specific antibodies are mixed with whole cell antigens?

A) Agglutination

B) Precipitation

C) Immunodiffusion

D) Complement fixation

E) Immunoassay

Question 15

The double diffusion method allows for disease identification and diagnosis and is an application of what immunological technique?

A) Agglutination

B) Precipitation

C) Immunoassay

D) Fluorescent antibody test

E) Complement fixation

Question 16

What is the test used to verify HIV-positive test results obtained by ELISA?

A) Ouchterlony test

B) Immunoelectrophoresis

C) Southern blot

D) Western blot

E) Counterimmunoelectrophoresis

Question 17

Complement fixation testing requires all but which of the following components?

A) Antibody

B) Antigen

C) Complement

D) Sensitized sheep red blood cells

E) Streptolysin toxin

Question 18

What indicates a positive reaction in the complement fixation test?

A) Antigen-antibody precipitation

B) Solubilization of sheep red blood cells

C) No hemolysis of sheep red blood cells

D) Hemolysis of sheep red blood cells

E) Agglutination of sheep red blood cells

Question 19

Why is serotyping used?

A) To identify, classify, and subgroup certain bacteria into categories

B) To determine the susceptibility of sheep red blood cells to complement

C) To identify and diagnose a disease

D) To verify the presence of specific antibodies that react with specific antigens

E) To identify persons of the same blood type

Question 20

What is the fundamental tool in immunofluorescence testing?

A) Specific antigen

B) Red blood cells

C) Complement

D) Fluorescent monoclonal antibody

E) Fluorescent polyclonal antibody

Question 21

What reagent is quantified when performing an indirect ELISA?

A) Antigen

B) Antibodies in patient's serum

C) Fluorescent antibody

D) Chromagen

E) Complement

Question 22

Which statement is incorrect about serological tests?

A) Sensitivity is the property of a test to react only with a certain antigen or antibody.

B) Antibody-antigen binding is visible only with an electron microscope.

C) The quantity of antibodies in the serum is the titer.

D) Agglutination reactions are visible to the naked eye because large clumps form.

E) These tests can be used to detect both antibodies and antigens.

Question 23

Which is incorrect regarding the VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Lab) test?

A) It detects syphilis antibodies.

B) It is an immunofluorescence test.

C) It contains a heterophilic antigen (cardiolipin).

D) It is a precipitation test.

E) It is a good screening test.

Question 24

What is injected into a patient when the tuberculin skin test is performed?

A) Complement

B) Monoclonal antibodies

C) Sheep red blood cells

D) Fluorescent antibodies

E) Antigen

Question 25

Which test is used for routine identification of T and B cells?

A) Ouchterlony

B) Rosette formation

C) Complement fixation

D) Indirect ELISA

E) VDRL test