Microbiology                                                                            Name________________________________

Test 3

October 28, 2005

Chapters 11-17

 

In repentance and rest is your salvation, in quietness and trust is your strength.  Isaiah 30:15

 

  1. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except:

A)    ultraviolet radiation

B)     boiling water

C)    HEPA filters

D)    pasteurization

E)     hydrogen peroxide

 

  1. Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

A)    naked viruses

B)     protozoan cysts

C)    bacterial endospores

D)    yeast

 

  1. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is:

A)    disinfection

B)     sterilization

C)    antisepsis

D)    sanitization

E)     degermation

 

  1. Sterilization is achieved by:

A)    flash pasteurization

B)     hot water

C)    boiling water

D)    steam autoclave

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

  1. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are:

A)    121° C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

B)     63° C for 30 minutes

C)    160° C for 2 hours

D)    71.6° C for 15 seconds

E)     100° C for 30 minutes

 

  1. All the following act as surfactants except:

A)    detergents

B)     soaps

C)    alcohols

D)    hypochlorites

 

 

  1. Fill in an appropriate antibiotic for each of the six sites of action below: 3 pts

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which is not terminology used for resident flora:

A)    pathogenic flora

B)     normal flora

C)    indigenous flora

D)    normal microflora

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

  1. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora:

A)    before birth, in utero

B)     during, and immediately after birth

C)    when a child first goes to school

D)    when an infant gets its first infectious disease

E)     during puberty

 

 

  1. Resident flora are found in/on the:

A)    skin

B)     mouth

C)    nasal passages

D)    large intestine

E)     all of the choices are correct

  1. Virulence factors include all the following except:

A)    capsules

B)     ribosomes

C)    exoenzymes

D)    endotoxin

E)     exotoxin

 

  1. Which is mismatched:

A)    secondary infection – infection spreads to several tissue sites

B)     mixed infection – several agents established at infection site

C)    local infection – pathogen remains at or near entry site

 

  1. The study of the disease (frequency and distribution) in a population is:

A)    clinical microbiology

B)     medicine

C)    immunology

D)    epidemiology

 

  1. The number of people with a disease is:

A)    mortality rate

B)     morbidity rate

C)    epidemiology

D)    epidemic rate

 

  1. A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is:

A)    epidemic

B)     endemic

C)    pandemic

D)    sporadic

E)     chronic

 

  1. The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the:

A)    fomite

B)     carrier

C)    vector

D)    reservoir

 

  1. Reservoirs include:

A)    humans

B)     animals

C)    soil

D)    water

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

  1. Nosocomial infections are contracted:

A)    at birth

B)     from a carrier

C)    in a hospital

D)    via a vector

E)     from the soil

  1. When would Koch's Postulates be utilized:

A)    determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab

B)     development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab

C)    determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab

D)    formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab

E)     whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

 

 

  1. Most of the skin's resident flora are found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis. 1pt

A)    True

B)     False

 

 

  1. Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens. 1 pt

A)    True

B)     False

 

 

  1. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except:

A)    the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin

B)     nasal hairs

C)    flushing action of tears and blinking

D)    flushing action of urine

E)     phagocytic white blood cells

 

 

  1. Nonspecific chemical defenses include:

A)    lysozyme

B)     lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat

C)    skin's acidic pH and fatty acids

D)    stomach hydrochloric acid

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

 

  1. The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are:

A)    basophils

B)     eosinophils

C)    neutrophils

D)    monocytes

E)     lymphocytes

 

 

  1. The least numerous of all white blood cells, that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are:

A)    basophils

B)     eosinophils

C)    neutrophils

D)    monocytes

E)     lymphocytes

  1. Comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBC's, and are the cells that function in the body's acquired immune system:

A)    basophils

B)     eosinophils

C)    neutrophils

D)    monocytes

E)     lymphocytes

 

 

  1. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are:

A)    basophils

B)     eosinophils

C)    neutrophils

D)    monocytes

E)     lymphocytes

 

 

  1. Comprise 3–7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages:

A)    basophils

B)     eosinophils

C)    neutrophils

D)    monocytes

E)     lymphocytes

 

 

  1. Plasma cells:

A)    function in cell-mediated immunity

B)     are derived from T-lymphocytes

C)    function in blood clotting

D)    produce and secrete antibodies

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

 

  1. This gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes:

A)    lymph nodes

B)     thymus

C)    spleen

D)    GALT

E)     Tonsils

F)     complement

 

 

  1. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except:

A)    redness

B)     warmth

C)    swelling

D)    pain

E)     chills

  1. Match the term with the definition: 4 pts

Complement fixation                 neutralization                 agglutination                  opsonization

 

__________________________Antigenic invader covered with antibodies to facilitate phagocytosis

__________________________Antigenic invader covered with antibodies to inhibit it from binding to and gaining access to host cells

__________________________Invading cell covered with antibodies to facilitate serum proteins binding to produce cell lysis

__________________________Antigenic invader covered with antibodies cross-linked to other antigens to inhibit function

 

 

  1. Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

A)    inflammatory response

B)     phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils

C)    interferon

D)    T cell and B cell responses

E)     anatomical barriers in the body

 

  1. Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. 1 pt

A)    True

B)     False

 

 

  1. Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. 1 pt

A)    True

B)     False

 

 

  1. Helper T cells:

A)    secrete antibodies

B)     function in allergic reactions

C)    directly destroy target cells

D)    suppress immune reactions

E)     activate B cells and other T cells

 

 

  1. Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions:

A)    are the result of genetic expression

B)     function in recognition of self molecules

C)    receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system

D)    all of the choices are correct

 

  1. Class II MHC genes code for:

A)    certain secreted complement components

B)     self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes

C)    receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells

D)    all of the choices are correct

  1. Lymphocytes:

A)    possess MHC antigens for recognizing self

B)     have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens

C)    gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self

D)    develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity

E)     all of the choices are correct

 

 

  1. Label parts of immunoglobulin 3 pts

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an:

A)    antigenic determinant or epitope

B)     hapten

C)    antigen binding site

D)    variable region

 

 

  1. Antigen presenting cells:

A)    include dendritic cells

B)     include macrophages

C)    engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic

D)    hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface

E)     all of the choices are correct

  1. Fill in the correct terms flow chart of TH-cell stimulation and subsequent reactions 2 pts

 

 

1)__________________________ presents the antigen to the TH-cell stimulating it

 

 


            (stimulate)                                                                                             (stimulate)

                                                                                                                       

     TD (delayed hypersensitivity)                      2)___________________

                             TS (suppressor)

            3)_____________________

 

 

Which differentiate into 4)____________________ (that make antibodies) and memory cells

 

 

 

 

  1. Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A)    is called the crystallizable fragment

B)     forms the antigen binding sites

C)    contains an area that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells

D)    contains an area that can fix complement

 

  1. These cells carry CD8 receptors and function to inhibit B cells and other T cells: 1 pt

A)    helper T cells

B)     suppressor T cells

C)    cytotoxic T cells

D)    delayed hypersensitivity T cells

 

  1. These lymphocytes are cells that attack cancer cells and virus- infected cells: 1 pt

A)    helper T cells

B)     suppressor T cells

C)    cytotoxic T cells

D)    delayed hypersensitivity T cells

 

  1. An example of artificial passive immunity would be:

A)    chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity

B)     polio vaccine triggers extended immunity to polio

C)    giving a person antibodies to snake venom virus after a bit

D)    a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

 

 

  1. An example of artificial active immunity would be:

A)    chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity

B)     polio vaccine triggers extended immunity to polio

C)    giving a person antibodies to snake venom virus after a bit

D)    a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta

 

Use the figure to answer the next two questions 1 pt each

  1. Which phase is the “latent phase”?  (WRITE LETTER)

 

 

 

 

  1. Which phase is the “secondary response” (WRITE LETTER)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Agglutination refers to

A)    crosslinking pieces of antigen

B)     crosslinking whole cells

C)    precipitation of proteins

D)    subjecting proteins to an electric charge

 

 

  1. Three types of inappropriate immune responses include all except:

A)    autoimmunity

B)     hypersensitivity

C)    B-cell stimulation

D)    Hyposensitivity

 

 

  1. Did you read chapters 14 and 15? (This is a real question with a RIGHT and WRONG answer.)

A)    YES

B)     NO